| Q 1. | Calculate the BETA of a portfolio from the given data :
Treynor's Ratio = 0.09
Portfolio Return = 12%
Risk free rate = 7% 1 0.78 0.55 Lack of data
CORRECT ANSWER WRONG ANSWER CORRECT ANSWER:0.55 Explanation:
Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return − Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta
0.09 = (0.12 - 0.07) / Beta
0.09 = 0.05 / Beta
Beta = 0.05 / 0.09
Beta = 0.55
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| Q 2. | Mr. Mehta's initial contribution is Rs. 2 crores which then rises to Rs. 2 crores 30 lakhs in the first year. Therefore, a performance fee will be payable on Rs. 30 lakhs. Is this statement True or False? True False
CORRECT ANSWER WRONG ANSWER CORRECT ANSWER:True Explanation:
High Water Mark is the highest value that the portfolio/account has reached. The portfolio manager charges performance based fee only on increase in portfolio value in excess of the previously achieved high water mark.
Under the High Water Mark (HWM) principle, performance fees are charged only on gains made above the previous highest value of the portfolio.
In this case:
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Initial contribution = Rs. 2 crores
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Portfolio value after 1 year = Rs. 2.30 crores
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Gain above HWM = Rs. 30 lakhs
So, the performance fee is chargeable only on Rs. 30 lakhs, the amount exceeding the previous HWM.
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| Q 3. | Offer for sale (OFS) is method of share sale for ________ . listed companies unlisted companies startups All of the above
CORRECT ANSWER WRONG ANSWER CORRECT ANSWER:listed companies Explanation:
Offer for Sale (OFS) is a mechanism by which existing shareholders of a listed company can sell their shares to the public through the stock exchange.
It is only for listed companies and is mainly used to comply with SEBI regulations for disinvestment by promoters or large shareholders.
Unlisted companies or startups cannot use OFS, they typically raise capital via IPO, private placement or other fundraising methods.
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| Q 4. | Given a PMS fund with a 11% yearly hurdle rate, and a 8% return in year one, what is the performance fee?" Performance fee equals 11% of the total gains Performance fee equals 8% of the total gains Performance fee equals 3% of the total gains Zero
CORRECT ANSWER WRONG ANSWER CORRECT ANSWER:Zero Explanation:
Performance fees are usually charged only if the portfolio's return exceeds the hurdle rate. If the portfolio does not exceed the hurdle rate, no performance fee is charged.
In this case:
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Hurdle rate: 11% per year
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Portfolio return in Year 1: 8%
Since the portfolio return (8%) is less than the hurdle rate (11%), the portfolio did not meet the required threshold for a performance fee to be charged. Therefore, no performance fee is charged for Year.
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| Q 5. | Ms. Swati buys a stock for Rs. 200 and sells the same for Rs 240. She has also received a dividend of Rs 10 on this. What will be her Holding Period Return (HPR)? 10% 15% 20% 25%
CORRECT ANSWER WRONG ANSWER CORRECT ANSWER:25% Explanation:
The Holding Period Return (HPR) is calculated using the formula:
HPR = [(Ending Price − Beginning Price) + Dividends] / Beginning Price
= [( 240 - 200 ) + 10] / 200
= (40 + 10) / 200
= 50 / 200
= 0.25 = 25% |
| Q 6. | Among the following options, which one does not belong to the four key stages of portfolio management? Evaluating existing and anticipated financial landscapes Creating an investment policy document Creating a Portfolio Finding a buyer for the portfolio
CORRECT ANSWER WRONG ANSWER CORRECT ANSWER:Finding a buyer for the portfolio Explanation:
"Finding a buyer for the portfolio" is not part of the portfolio management process because portfolio management focuses on managing investments, not selling them to customers.
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| Q 7. | What must a portfolio manager provide to subscribers when reclassifying an investment approach to a different strategy or benchmark? No-cost advisory services Shares offered at a reduced price Ability to exit without penalty or exit load Assured minimum investment yield
CORRECT ANSWER WRONG ANSWER CORRECT ANSWER:Ability to exit without penalty or exit load Explanation:
If a portfolio manager wants to change the tagging of an investment approach to a different strategy or benchmark, they must offer "An option to exit without any exit load."
This ensures that investors who may not agree with the new strategy or benchmark have the ability to exit their investment without incurring additional costs.
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| Q 8. | Which of these is NOT a valid classification of a Portfolio Management Service provider? Forex PMS Equity PMS Commodity PMS Fixed income PMS
CORRECT ANSWER WRONG ANSWER CORRECT ANSWER:Forex PMS Explanation:
Portfolio management services can be classified on the basis of product class such as –
1. Equity based PMS 2. Fixed Income based PMS 3. Commodity PMS 4. Mutual Fund PMS 5. Multi Asset based PMS
There is no product class such as Forex PMS.
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| Q 9. | In which way is Portfolio Management Services (PMS) different from mutual funds? PMS caters solely to the investment needs of institutional clients PMS provides personalized and customized investment strategies tailored to individual client needs PMS structures investments without granting clients direct asset ownership PMS does not involve active oversight by professional investment managers
CORRECT ANSWER WRONG ANSWER CORRECT ANSWER:PMS provides personalized and customized investment strategies tailored to individual client needs Explanation:
The key difference is Customization.
PMS : Offers highly customized investment portfolios tailored to individual investor's specific needs, risk tolerance, and financial goals.
Mutual Funds : Provide standardized investment portfolios that follow a predetermined investment objective.
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| Q 10. | The investment objective of Mr. Sundar is to have a regular income. He approaches a PMS firm for this purpose. Among the given four choices, which will be the preferred choice of the portfolio manager? New IPO's Dividend paying equity shares Zero coupon bonds Small and Mid cap equity shares
CORRECT ANSWER WRONG ANSWER CORRECT ANSWER:Dividend paying equity shares Explanation:
If regular income is the investment objective, funds will be invested in asset classes generating periodical income like dividend paying stocks, interest paying bond or/and rent paying realty.
(If the investment objective is capital appreciation, then investments need to be high return investments (like equity). If capital preservation is the primary investment objective, asset allocation will be tilted towards safe bonds and debt securities)
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